FCPS Dentistry Part 1 2011 Paper

FCPS Dentistry Part 1 2011 Paper

(1)The most susceptible intraoral site of oral cancer is

1-Floor of mouth
2-Soft palate
3-Attached gingiva & alveolar ridge
4-Lateral borders & ventral surface of the tongue

(2)Koplik spots are seen in...

1-Measels
2-Shingles
3-Herpangina
4-Chicken pox

(3)Sialoliths are most commonly found in

1-Stensen's duct
2-Wharthon's duct
3-Bartholian's doct
4-Ducts of rivinus

(4)A pt.presents with a slow-growing, painless mass at the junction of the soft and hard palates,which is present for many years without ulceration or telangiectasia of the overlying mucosa,
the most likely diagnosis is

1-Pleomor
phic adenoma
2-Monomorphic adenoma
3-Oncocytoma
4-Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

(5)A drug induced discoloration is seen in teeth of a child,which part of the teeth is affected in this case

1-Only enamel
2-Only dentin
3-Both enamel & dentin
4-Drugs don't affect teeth at all

(6)A pt.presented with a local abscess with multiple draining sinuses in Cervicofacial region,,,the main causative organism most likely is

1-Staphylococci & streptococci
2-Oral aerobes
3-Actinomyces israelii
4-Enterobacteriaceae

(7)Which is responsible for plaque adherence to teeth

1-Dextrans
2-Meteria alba
3-Sucrose
4-Acquired pellicle

(8)The most common pattern of bone loss in periodontal disease is

1-Horizontal bone loss
2-Vertical or angular bone loss
3-Osseous craters
4-Reversed architecture

(9)The primary pathogen associated with localized aggressive periodontitis is

1-Actinomyces actinomycetemcomitans
2-Prevotella intermedia
3-Eikenella corrodens
4-Campylobacter rectus

(10)A female pt.has bilateral reticular white lesion on buccal mucosa,the most likely diagnosis is

1-Leukoplakia
2-White sponge nevus
3-Reticular lichen planus
4-Mucous membrane pemphigoid

(11)Direct immunofluorescence stains reveal a deposit of IgG antibody and C3 in a smooth liner pattern along the basement membrane,the most likely disease is

1-Erosive lichen planus
2-Erythema multiform
3-Bullous pemphigoid
4-Mucous membrane pemphigoid

(12)Which of the following induces increased saliva secretions

1-Substance P
2-Lactoperoxidase
3-Kallikrein
4-All of the above

(13)A boxer came for extraction of mandibular Ist molar ,the maxillofascial surgeon was unable to extract the tooth, radiograph shows periapical radiopacity,the root tip area can be visualized in the bone, most likely he has

1-Hypercementosis
2-Periapical granuloma
3-Cementoblastom
4-Concrescence

(14)A pt.presents with asymptomatic ulcerated erythroleukoplakia diffusely affecting the right lateral tongue the preferred technique to take the biopsy in this situation is

1-Excisional biopsy
2-Punch biopsy
3-Incisional biopsy
4-Brush biopsy

(15)If a 4th canal is found in maxillary Ist molar,,in which root it is most likely found

1-MB root of maxillary Ist molar
2-palatal root of maxillary Ist molar
3-DB root of maxillary Ist molar
4-forth canal does not exist in maxillary Ist molar

ANSWERS KEY:-

1-D
2-A
3-B
4-A
5-C
6-C
7-D
8-A
9-A
10-C
11-D
12-A
13-A
14-C
15-A

===============================================
(1)Regarding the post surgical pt.,which effect of acetaminophen should be considered

1-its potent antiplatelet activity
2-severe hepatic damage is anticipated at plasma below conc.of 300mg/ml at 4 hours
3-its potent antiinflammatory activity
4-used in combination with opioid analgesics to manage severe pain

...
(2)A pt.after taking an analgesic overdose experienced hyperventilation,tachycardia,and metabolic acidosis,
the drug most likely was

1-salicylate
2-Mefenamic acid
3-opioid analgesics
4-Paracetamol

(3)Treatment of salisylate toxicity includes

1-alkalinization of the urine
2-Inducing vomiting
3-acidification of urine
4-N-acetylcysteine therapy

(4)Cyclosporine act by

1-reducing the host immune response to graft
2-alkylation of DNA
3-prevent purines or pyrimidines from becoming incorporated in to DNA
4-block cell division by preventing micro tubule function

(5)Antiprostaglandins act by inhibiting which of the following

1-arachidinic acid
2-cyclooxygenase
3-prostaglandin
4-lipoxygenase

(6)Drug of choice for treating systemic fungal infection is

1-amphotericin B
2-ketoconazole
3-nystatin
4-5-Fluorocytosine


(7)Which of the following drugs is actively secreted by renal tubular cells

1-procainamide
2-Cyclosporine
3-methotrexate
4-cimetidine

(8)Regarding morphine,which one is the most appropriate

1-does not affect blood pressure or heart rate even at large doses
2-depresses the apneustic center
3-Gastric, biliary and pancreatic secretions are decreased
4-causes mydriasis , even in total darkness

(9)A pt. has a severe pain due to bone cancer,for effective pain control morphine should be given in combination with

1-paracetamol
2-aspirin
3-naproxen
4-ibuprofen

(10)penicillins act by all of followings ,except

1-activating the autolytic enzymes of cell wall
2-attachment to specific penicillin-binding proteins of bacteria
3-blocking transpeptidation of peptidoglycans of bacterial cell wall
4-irrerversibly inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

(11)Clavulanic acid added to amoxicillins,

1-has its principal role is as a beta-lactamase inhibitor
2-has potent intrinsic antimicrobial activity
3-inhibit transpeptidases involved in cell wall biosynthesis
4-have no similarity in chemical structure to ß-lactam antibiotics

(12)basic drugs will primarily bind to

1-albumin
2-haemoglobin
3-lipoproteins
4-al-glycoprotein

(13)Fraction of the drug bound to plasma protein is

1-cannot be replaced by other drugs
2-crosses BBB rapidly
3-temporarily inactive
4-metabolized by the liver during "first-pass" metabolism

(14)Volume of distribution is related to

1-amount of drug in the body
2-concentration of drug in blood or plasma
3-dose given
4-all of the above

(15) Anti anxiety drugs are

1-minor tranquilizers
2-can cause dependence and tolerance
3-act on GABA receptors in the brain and help promote calm
4-are relatively short-acting and clear the body within a day or two
5-all of the above are true

(16)Rapid induction of inhalational anesthetic occurs in which case,

1-given with thiopental
2-it is a very volatile liquid
3-given with plenty of oxygen
4-given with nitrous oxide

(17)Properties of local anesthetics include all of the following EXCEPT

1-blockade of voltage-dependent sodium channels
2-preferential binding to resting channels
3-slowing of axonal impulse conduction
4-an increase in membrane refractory period
5-effects on vascular tone

(18)Which local anesthetic has strongest protein binding

1-bupivicain
2-Lidocaine
3-Prilocaine
4-Articaine

(19)A mother gave a drug to her premature new born child,,he turns to cyonotic,,drug most likely was

1-chloramphinical
2-clindamycin
3-aminoglycoside
4-sulfonamide

(20)Which of the following is not caused by cholinestrase inhibitors

1-myosis
2-paralysis of skeletal muscles
3-broncho spasm and bradycardia
4-lacrimation ,sweating and salivation

(21)A drug having pKa=7.9,,In infected tissue at pH 6.9, the fraction in the ionized form will be

1-10%
2-90%
3-1%
4-50%
5-99%

(22)A pt.having Status epilepticus,drug of choice to start treatment will be,

1-sodium valproate
2-diazepam
3-Phenytoin
4-lorazepam

(23)Dose of which of the following drug or drugs should be reduced in pt.s with renal impairment

1-gentamycin
2-rifampicin
3-penicillamine
4-phenytoin
5-all of the above

(24)Regarding the barbiturates,which is true

1-they all have anticonvulcant activity
2-except phenylbarbitone,,all are excreted in urine unchanged
3-barbiturates are selective CNS depressants which are primarily used as sedative hypnotics
4-Barbiturates are weak bases that are absorbed and rapidly distributed to all tissues
and fluids with high concentrations in the brain, liver, and kidneys

(25)Regarding the barbiturates,,which is true

1-the all are metabolized in liver
2-Appro. 25 to 50 % of a dose of phenobarbital is eliminated unchanged in the urine
3-the inactive metabolites of the barbiturates are excreted as conjugates of glucuronic acid.
4-the lipid solubility is the dominant factor in their distribution within the body,The more lipid soluble
the barbiturate, the more rapidly it penetrates all tissues of the body
5-all are true

ANSWERS KEY:-

01-D
02-A
03-A
04-A
05-B
06-A
07-C
08-B
09-C
10-D
11-A
12-D
13-C
14-D
15-E
16-A
17-B
18-A
19-A
20-B
21-B
22-D
23-E
24-A
25-E
these were pharmacology mcqs in fcps part 1 dentistry
==============
ANATOMY
(1)Regarding the blood supply of the bone,which one is true

1-Short bones are supplied by the nutrient artery
2-Epiphyseal arteries supply the ends of the long bone
3-Compact bones are supplied by the epiphyseal and metaphyseal arteries
4-medullary cavity of the bone is supplied mainly by the metaphyseal artery

(2)Regarding the histology of the bone,which ...one is correct

1-Compact bone is consist of concentric lamellae which are continous with trabecular bone on the inner side
2-Compact bone is consist of parallel rows of osteon at right angel to the axis of the bone
3-Osteocytes are present in canaliculi
4-periosteal lamellae are present in the periphery of compact bone

(3)Which of the following is not a skin appandage

1-hairs
2-sebaceous glands
3-nails
4-mucous glands

(4)Zone of Veil,also called cell free zone,does contain

1-fibroblasts
2-plexuses of capillaries & nerve plexus of Rashkow
3-macrophages
4-none of the above

(5)Regarding the origin of Axillary artery ,which is correct

1-the axillary artery begins at the costal margin of first rib
2-the axillary artery begins at the lateral border of the first rib
3-the axillary artery begins at the Base of axilla
4-the axillary artery begins at the lower border of the teres major muscle

(6)Right coronary artery does not supplies blood to the

1-right atrium
2-major portion of right ventricle
3-left atrium
4-interventricular septum(posterior part)

(7)If thoracic duct obstructs,swelling will develop in all of the folllowings, except

1-upper limbs
2-abdomen
3-lower limbs
4-cerebral hemispheres

(8)Regarding the breast,which is not true

1-mainly supplied by internal thoracic artery
2-submamary area is relatively avascular
3-axillary tail drain into posterior axillary lymph node
4-is a halocrine gland

(9)A child has a laceration on lower lip and bleeding profusely,best way to stop bleeding is

1-compressing fascial artery at site of its origin on the side of injury
2-compressing fascial artery bilaterally at site of its origin
3-compressing the angular artery at the corner of the mouth
4-compressing the inferior labial artery below the lip

(10)Which nerve is involved in Ramsay Hunt syndrome

1-trigeminal nerve
2-abducent nerve
3-optic nerve
4-fascial nerve

(11)A pt.has a ptosis,on examination you noticed that his eye ball has moved in inferior and lateral direction,
which nerve is involved

1-optic nerve
2-abducent nerve
3-trochlear nerve
4-trigeminal nerve

(12)Which bone arises from second branchial arch

1-temporal
2-zygomatic
3-styloid process
4-mandible

(13)Epithelial linning of tonsillar crypt is drived from which arch

1-1st
2-2nd
3-3rd
4-4th

(14)Regarding mastoid process ,which is the correct

1-development depends entirely on development of the sternocliedomastoid muscle
2-At birth the mastoid process is undeveloped it grows after birth, and assumes a nipple-like form about the
second year of life
3-Towards puberty its spongy internal subst,ance (diploe) becomes permeated with air spaces ,known as mastoid air cells
4-splenius capitis muscle is attached on its lateral surface
5-all of the above

(15)Which muscle is the primary dilator of the auditory tube

1-levator veli palatini
2-salpingopharyngeus
3-tensor tympani
4-tensor veli palatini

(16)Which nerve passes through petrotympanic fissure

1-grester petrosal nerve
2-lesser petrosal nerve
3-deep petrosal nerve
4-external petrosal nerve

(17)A pt.has facial paralysis which is characterized by the minimal weakness of upper fascial muscles,lesion is

1-supranuclear lesion
2-nuclear lesion
3-peripheral nerve lesions
4-none of the above

(18)Tip of the tongue is resected,which taste cannot be perceived by the pt.

1-salty
2-sour
3-sweet
4-bitter

(19)Which artery arises from the deep medial surface of external carotid artery

1-posterior auricular artery
2-lingual artery
3-superior thyroid artery
4-ascending pharyngeal artery

(20)At the level of the six cervical vertebra the

1-common carotid bifuractes
2-superior laryngeal nerve divides
3-oesophagus begins
4-recurrent laryngeal nerve divided into internal & external branches

(21)Regarding the interior of larynx,which is correct

1-it extends into the sinus of the larynx inferior to the vocal fold
2-it is supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve up the level of vestibular fold
3-it is bounded superiorly by the ary epiglottic folds
4-it is bounded inferiorly by the rimr glottidis

(22)Muscle which abducts the vocal cards

1-cricothyroid muscle
2-lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
3-interarytenoid muscle
4-posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

(23)Most abundant cells in CNS are

1-microglia
2-fibrous astrocytes
3-oligodandrocytes
4-protoplasmic astrocytes

(24)In a patient with unilateral conductive hearing loss ,which is true

1- Weber's test lateralises toward the affected ear
2-tinnitus
3-bone conduction is better than air conduction
4-all are true

(25)Regarding the paranasal sinuses ,which is correct

1-The sinuses develop as outgrowths from the nasal cavity
2-the sinuses develop mostly after birth
3-they provide resonance to the voice
4-All of the above

(26)The narrowest part of nose is

1-the choanae
2-external nasal valve or nasal vestibule
3-internal nasal valve area
4-roof of the nasal cavity

(27)Cells of simple columnar epithelium are connected by

1-tight junctions,adhering junctions,gap junctions
2-tight junctions,gap junctions,desmosomes
3-tight junctions only
4-desmosomes only

(28)Which muscle is present within the posterior triangle of the neck

1-trapezius
2-Sternomastoid
3-inferior belly of omohyoid
4-posterior belley of digastric

(29)Which muscle forms the wall proper of thorax

1-scalene muscles
2-intercostal muscles
3-pectoralis muscles
4-lattismus dorsi muscles

(30)Illaic crest marks level of the which lumbar vertebral body

1-L1
2-L2
3-L3
4-L4

(31)Manubrium sterni doesnot articulate with

1-first costal cartilages
2-the right and left clavicles
3-second costal cartilages
4-third costal cartilages

(32)Skin of forehead paramedian area is supplied by

1-superaorbital nerve
2-fascial nerve
3-ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
4-superatrochlear nerve

(33)Lateral upper 2/3rd & medial lower 1/3rd of the auricular skin is supplied by

1-greater auricular nerve and lesser occipital nerve
2-lesser occipital nerve and auriculotemporal nerve
3-auricular branch of vagus nerve and lesser occipital nerve
4-auriculotemporal nerve and great auricular nerve

(34)postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from otic ganglion travel with the auriculotemporal nerve to supply which gland

1-sublingual gland
2-lacrimal gland
3-parotid gland
4-submandibular gland

(35)Which of the following occurs during pharyngeal phase of swallowing

1-velopharyngeal closure to prevent reflux of material into the posterior nasal aperture
2-closure of the larynx in a specific sequence to prevent aspiration
3-contraction of the pharyngeal constrictor muscles in a superior to inferior direction
4-elevation of the larynx and hyoid bone towards the base of tongue
5-all of the above

(36)Lateral ligament limits movements of TMJ in which direction

1-posterior direction
2-anterior direction
3-lateral direction
4-medial direction

(37)Articular surfaces of TMJ are

1-coronoid of the mandible inferiorly and the articular tubercle and the mandibular fossa superiorly
2-formed by mandibular fossa & articular eminence
3-condyle of the mandible inferiorly and the articular tubercle and the mandibular fossa superiorly
4-composed of the concave articular fossa and the convex articular eminence

(38)Inappropriate about synovial joints

1-articulating surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage (no blood supply)
2-formed by two articulating bones ,united by fibrous joint capsule that's reinforced by ligaments
3-these joints permit limited or no movement
4-synovial fluid supplies articular cartilage with nutrients obtained from blood vessels of the synovial membrane

(39)Increased neural activity before a skilled voluntary movement is first seen in the

1-spinal motor neurons
2-precentral motor cortex
3-basal ganglia
4-cerebellum
5-cortical association areas

(40)Regarding Parathyroid glands,which is correct

1-lies between thyroid gland and the trachea
2-superior develop from third and inferior from forth pharyngeal arch
3-supplied by inferior thyroid artery
4-supplied by superior and inferior thyroid arteries

ANSWERS KEY:-

01-B
02-D
03-D
04-B
05-B
06-C
07-D
08-D
09-D
10-D
11-A
12-C
13-B
14-E
15-D
16-B
17-A
18-C
19-D
20-C
21-C
22-D
23-B
24-D
25-D
26-C
27-C
28-C
29-B
30-D
31-D
32-D
33-D
34-C
35-E
36-C
37-C
38-C
39-E
40-D
===============================
PATHOLOGY
(1)Cell swelling in hypoxic cell injury is due to

1-mitochondrial dysfunction
2-lipofuscin accumulation
3-entery of exteracellular water
4-reactive oxygen radicals

(2)Cause of fatty liver in our society is...

1-alcohol consumption
2-viral hepatitis
3-increased fatty intake
4-liver cirrohosis

(3)Which of the virus most commonly causes bronchitis

1-Coxsackie virus
2-adenovirus
3-respiratory syncytial virus
4-influenza virus

(4)Caspases once activated leads to which pathological process

1-apoptosis
2-calcification
3-necrosis
4-cytoskeletal protein degradation

(5)All impairs wound healing except

1-foreign body
2-infection
3-decreased protien intake
4-hypertension

(6)Which of the following is not an irreversible cell injury

1-mylein figures
2-karyolysis
3-karyorexis
4-mitrochondrial damage

(7)In liver necrosis, which enzyme is raised in plasma

1-glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH)
2-aspartate aminotransferase (AST),
3-alanine aminotransferase (ALT )
4-sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)
5-alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

(8)Metaplasia of surface epithelium is caused by

1-increased demand
2-chronic irritation
3-mutations
4-UV radiations

(9)A nine months old child suffers from recurrent upper respiratory tract infections and diarrhea,
immunological tests will reveal

1-hypergammaglobinemia
2-decreased IgA
3-decreased IgD
4-decreased IgE
5-increased IgG

(10)organism most commonly responsible for wound infections in hospital wards is

1-Staphylococcus aureus
2-Klebsiella pneumoniae
3-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4-Escherichia coli

(11)A soldier had a splinter injury and his femoral artery is damaged,
considerable blood was lost,,which is best fluid to for replacement

1-20 days old whole blood
2-RBC conceratate
3-fresh frosen plasma
4-Crystalloid
5-whole blood


(12)Fasting blood glucose level ,necessitating further investigations

1-15mmol/L
2-10mmol/L
3-5mmol/L
4-7mmol/L

(13)A farmer working in feild on hot sunny day ..faints ..most likely cause

1-excess sweating
2-dehydration
3-heat stroke
4-fatigue and thirst

(14)Best way to moniter antiviral therapy in patients with chronic hepatitis B

1-Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAG)
2-Anti-hepatitis Be antibody (Anti-HBe)
3-Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
4-Hepatitis B DNA (HBV DNA)

(15)Which virus not transmitted through blood transfusion

1-hepatitus B
2-hepatitus C
3-cytomeglovirus
4-hepatitus A
5-Parvovirus

(16)Non dividing or progenitor cells are

1-germ cells of testis
2-glial cells
3-myocardial cells
4-Skin cells

(17)A pt.was operated for tonsillectomy,,after 2 hours,he developed tachycardia and hypotension,,
most likely he experienced which shock

1-septic shock
2-tramatic shock
3-cardiac shock
4-hypovolemic shock

(18)A pt received PPD,after 24 hours,she developed an indurated area,,
cells along with macrophages in the indurated ares most likely will be

1-B lymphocytes
2-neutrophils
3-leukocytes
4-T lymphocytes

(19)Which of the following does not occur during healing of fractured long bones

1-giant cell reparative granuloma formation
2-bleeding, development of a hematoma with macrophages and other inflammatory cells
and the gradual development of capillary clotting
3-bone remodelling
4-reparative external callus, which is typically composed of woven bone,
connects the bone ends,at the fracture site

(20)Complexs involved in graft rejection are

1-cellwall complexs
2-major histocompatibility complex
3-nuclear complexs
4-All of the above are involved

(21)Source of nitroic oxide is

1-Arginine
2-Glycine
3-Leucine
4-Alanine

ANSWERS KEY

01-C
02-C
03-C
04-A
05-D
06-A
07-A
08-B
09-B
10-A
11-D
12-D
13-C
14-D
15-D
16-C
17-D
18-D
19-A
20-B
21-A
========================================
PHYSIOLOGY
(1)Basic fuel for the brain is

1-glucose
2-Fatty acids
3-glycogen
4-ketone bodies

(2)A person lost 2ml water by sweating,later replaced by drinking 2ml pure water,the following is correct...

1-increase ECF volume
2-decreased intracellular osmolarity
3-decreased intracellular volume
4-increase ECF osmolarity

(3)In which of the following situation pulmonary blood flow will be greater than aortic blood flow

1-administration of a positive inotropic agent
2-right ventricular failure
3-right to left ventricular shunting
4-left to right ventricular shunting

(4)When propanolol is administered,blockade of which receptor is responsible for decrease in cardiac output

1-alpha 1
2-beta 1
3-beta 2
4-muscarinic
5-nicotinic

(5)If the diameter of alveoli is reduced to half,resistance becomes

1-1/4th
2-1/16
3-4th
4-16th
5-1/8th

(6)Right shift of Hb dissociation curve is caused by decrease in

1-terperature
2-2.3-DPG
3-partial pressure of CO2
4-pH

(7)Transport of glucose along its conc.gradient is

1-Primary active transport
2-facilitated diffusion
3-secondary active transport
4-carrier mediated transport

(8)pH=7.1,PCO2=44,HCO3-=12,diagnosis (pH = 7.36 – 7.44• PCO2 = 36-44 mmhg• HCO3 = 22-26 mEq/L)

1-metabolic acidosis
2-respiratory alkalosis
3-partially compensated metabolic acidosis
4-respiratory acidosis

(9)Regulotary pathway for high blood glucose levels is

1-glucokinase-phosphofructokinase-pyravate kinase
2-hexsokinase-phosphofructokinase-pyravate kinase
3-glucokinase-phosphofructokinase-pyravate dehydrogenase
4-hexsokinase-phosphofructokinase-pyravate dehydrogenase

(10)protein formation does not affected by

1-deletion of sequence of DNA
2-interferance with mRNA
3-interferance with rRNA
4-interferance with tRNA
5-all will affect protein synthesis

(11)Exchange through lungs deponds upon

1-Partial pressure difference of the gases
2-Surface area available for gas exchange
3-Diffusion distance
4-Solubility and molecular weight of the gases
5-all of the above

(12)A pt. has stenosis of mitral valve,,what will happens

1-excercise can induce acute pulmonary edema
2-fatigue and the right upper quadrant abdominal discomfort (due to an enlarged liver)
3-heart murmur and an abnormal pulse in the jugular vein in the neck
4-fatigue and cold skin (due to low cardiac output)

(13)A night time which hormone has high levels

1-thyroxin
2-ADH
3-cortisol
4-GH

(14)Early sign of calcium deficiency is

1-tetany
2-osteoporosis
3-yellowing of teeth
4-problems with blood clotting

(15)Alkaline phosphatase levels are raised in

1-bone diseases
2-liver diseases
3-blood disorders ,e.g,Polycythemia vera
4-All of the above

(16)Thick filament are composed of

1-Tropomyosin
2-actin
3-troponin
4-myosin

(17)After blood donation,,which will return to normal at the last

1-blood pressure
2-RBCs
3-Hemoglobin content
4-Pulse

(18)Glycogan is

1-animal polysaccharide
2-animal heteropolysaccharide
3-animal homopolysaccharide
4-All are true

(19)During fasting what will not decrease

1-BMR
2-blood pressure
3-cortisol
4-body temperature

(20)Which is inappropriate

1-proteins are absorbed in the form of polypeptides from GIT
2-Newborns of mammals can absorb intact proteins at the small intestine.
3-High levels of protein intake increase the activity of branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase
4-Protein deficiency and malnutrition can lead to mental retardation and kwashiorkor

(21)A 60 years old businessman is evaluted by dr.his blood pressure was 185/130mmHg,lab tests reveal increase in
plasma renin activity,plasma aldosterone level,left renal vein renin level are high,
his right renal vein renin level are decreased,diagnosis??

1-pheochromocytoma
2-left renal artery stenosis
3-right renal artery stenosis
4-aldosterone secreating tumor

(22)Which of the following decreases the conversion of 25-hydroxychoecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxychoecalciferol

1-a diet low in Ca++
2-hypocalcemia
3-hyperparathyroidism
4-hypophosphatemia
5-chronic renal failure

(23)Which of the following would be expected in pt.s with Graves disease

1-cold sensitivity
2-weight gain
3-incresed T3 & T4
4-increased TCH

(24)Body can tolerate the deficiency of

1-protiens
2-fats
3-carbohydrates
4-iodine

(25)Anemia does not occurs in one of the following conditions

1-extramedullary erythropoiesis
2-renal disease
3-pregnancy
4-intra abdominal heammorage

(26)Calcitonin hormone is sercreted by

1-parafocicular cells of thyroid
2-parathyroid oxyphil cell
3-Chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland
4-parathyroid chief cell

(27)In chronic Myelogenous Leukemia ,which cell doesnot increases in number

1-neutrophils
2-lymphocytes
3-basophils
4-eosinophils

(28)Regarding the neurotransmitter,which is correct

1-glycine is inhibitory neurotransmitter
2-Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme, which hydrolyses the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
3-Dopamine is excitatory neurotransmitter
4-Rabidly removed from the synaptic cleft by uptake or degradation
5-all are true

(29)Regarding muscle spindles whicw one is correct

1.present only in slow acting muscles
2.they are sensory receptors within the belly of a muscle, which primarily detect changes in the length of this muscle
3.Muscle spindles are located in parallel with the regular muscle fibers
4.Within spindles there are two types of fibers: nuclear bag and nuclear chain.
5-All are true

ANSWERS KEY

01-A
02-A
03-D
04-B
05-D
06-D
07-B
08-A
09-A
10-E
11-E
12-A
13-D
14-A
15-D
16-D
17-C
18-C
19-C
20-A
21-B
22-E
23-C
24-C
25-A
26-A
27-B
28-E
29-E
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