ANESTHESIA MARCH' 08
FCPS I - 26th MARCH' 08
ANESTHESIA
1. If a drug is taken orally. How will u assess the drug?
a. plasma drug conc
b. blood drug conc
c. urine drug conc
2. Regarding Nitroglycerine, all are true except
a. extensive 1st pass effect
b. venodilator
c. dec venous return
d. dec HR
e. t1/2 is 3-5 min
3. Warfarin, effect inc by
a. Cimetidine
4. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than in adults
a. dec metabolism
b. dec plasma protein binding
5. Enzyme induction occurs in:
a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. adrenals
6. Digoxin toxicity
a. Inc K*
b. Inc Mg*
c. dec Ca**
d. dec Na*
e. alkalosis
7. Secondary active transport occurs thru
a. glucose
b. Na*
c. K*
d. Urea
8. 2 liters of 2 different gases of diff mol wt contain
a. equal no. of molecules
b. equal no. of atoms
9. Capillary permeability is inc by
a. hypertension
b. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
c. intersitial hydrostatic press
d. altered permeability
10. PG in inflammation dec by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors
11. Which is true.
a. all parasymp are cholinergic
b. all sympathetic are adrenergic
c. all post-gang parasymp are cholinergic
12. Gastric motility is inc by:
a. inc gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
13. Gastric acid is inc by
a. Gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
14. Basal level of bile
15. alpha recptors effects ?
a. inc HR
b. lipogenesis
c. midriasis
d. piloerector contraction
e. bronchodilator
16. Beta effect ?
a. Inc HR and force of contraction
17. ACh effect?
a. Inc salivation
b. inc sweating
c. constipation
18. Thirst is dec by:
a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. Ag II
d. baroreceptor efferent
e. inc Hematocrit
19. promotes each others actions
a. atropine and reserpine
b. amytriptyline and reserpine
c. atropine and amitryptyline
20. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mg/kg thiopentone, pt is hypotonic. Cause ?
a. hypersensitivity
b. dec HR
c. dec contractility
21.In hypertonic obs cardiomyopathy, which Ca** channel blocker is used:
a. Nifedipine
b. Nicardipine
22. Loop diuretics + thiazides enhance each others effect ( Dec NaCl abs) at:
a. descending loop of Henle
b. ascending loop of Henle
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. collecting duct
23. Pt with mild CCF. Treatment started. 1 week later pt complains of severe pain at Rt big toe. Cause:
a. thiazide
b. furosemide
c. ACEi
d. amiodarone
24. Metastatic pleural effusion. Drug to be given:
a. streptomycin
b. clindamycin
c. corticosteroids
d. bleomycin
25. Monotherapy for mild CCF:
a. digoxin
b. captopril
c. nifedipine
d. propranolol
26.Pacemaker for complete heart block. Terminals shd be in:
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Rt atrium
d. purkinje
e. Rt ventricle ..............(correct)
27. Infant with renal abnormality (renal artery stenosis). Drug responsible:
a. ACEi
b. Ca** channel blocker
c. amiodarone
28.Lungs inactivate Bradykinin by:
a. enz involved in converting kallikrein to plasma protein
29.After loss of 1 litre of blood in 5 min:
a. diastolic press dec
b. systolic press dec
c. aldosterone inc
d. no change
30. CO = VR. Large hump on left of cardiac pacing mentions:
a. inc contractility
b. inc HR
c. inc end-diastolic vol
31. Amiodarone.........> MOA
32. Lidocaine. MOA?
a. dec abnormal tissue conduction and no effect on normal tissue
b. inc PR interval
c. dec atrial contraction
d. dec AV conduction
e. inc QRS
f. inc QT
33. Class IA antiarrythmic drugs
a. Lidocaine
b. quinidine
c. procainide
d. amiodarone
34. Lidocaine as antiarrrythmic:
a. blocks Na* channels
b. Beta blocker
c. K* channel blocker
35.Verapamil ..... as antiarrythmic ?
36.Drug that inc extracellular K* (moves K* out of the cell):
a. Angiotensin
b. H2CO3
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. pH
e. exercise
37. Sec K* in renal cells
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. carbonic anhydrase
38. Consistent finding in hypoKalemia
a. prolong vomiting
b. diarrhea
c. ureters attached to colon
39. Metabolic alkalosis
a. renal failure
40. ARF- most effect.
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LOH
d. CD
41. Hb 8.0, HCO3- inc (35), pH Inc, Ca++ dec. Cause
a. ARF
b. Vit D def
c. folic acid deficiency
d. PTH
42. Anesthetics differ from anelgesics in:
a. only alter A delta and C fibers
b. Anesthetics effect at cerebral level and analgesics at spinal cord level
c. affects only pain and temp and no other sensory modalities
43. High output cardiac failure
a. Thiamine
b. B2
c. B6
d. Folic acid
44. 90 yrs old lady with purplish large patch on Rt hand and arm. No itching or pain. No comorbids, Otherwise Normal. Reason?
a. Capillary abn
b. Prothrombin
c. Vit K dependent clotting factors
45. 10 yrs old girl from Baluchistan c/o fatiguw, lethargy, mild jaundice, discoloration of skin, enlarged spleen. Hb 8.0, MCV 58, S. Ferritin 1000. Appropriate treatment?
a. deferroxamine
b. blood transfusion
c. iron transfusion
46. Death d/t embolism after accident
a. Fat
b. tumor cells
c. air
d. thromboembolism
47. Warfarin, effects on:
a. Factor VIII
b. factor III
c. Prothrombin
48. Ibpratopium bromide given by nebulization:
a. dec ACh release in bronchi
b. vasodil
c. inc secretion
49. Mast cell stabilizer.
a. Na chromoglycate
50. T1/2 of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:
a. 20-50 hrs
b. 50-100 hrs
c. 100-200 hrs
d. 36-200 hrs ................... (correct)
51. Post menopausal women with brease ca. DOC
a. Tamoxifen
52. Sec released from thyroid gland entering circulation is:
a. Thyroxine
b. Free T3
c. free T4
d. TSH
e. TRH
53. Cushing's triad:
a. Inc ICP, HTN, Bradycardia
b. Inc ICP, hypoTN, bradycardia
c. inc ICP, hypoTN, tachycardia
d. inc ICP, HTN. tachycardia
e. dec ICP, HTN, tachycardia
54. CSF
a. total 150 ml
b. production rate 20 ml/hr
c. produced by ependymal cells of choroid plexus
d. drained by lymphatics
55. CSF:
a. Inc K* than plasma
b. dec glucose
c. dec specific gravity
56. PTH
a. inc PO4 abs from renal tubules
b. inc Ca resorption from bones
c. CRF
d. Anemia
57. Imp buffer in interstitial fluid
a. H2CO3
b. Hb
c. plasma pr.
d. PO4
58. Cell wall synthesis inhib
a. Penicillin
59. Sulphonamides inhibit
a. tetrahydrofolate in bacteria
60. Dark urine after starting ATT.
a. Rifampin
61. 1 week after starting of ATT, pt c/o pain in big toe. Reason
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. PZA
62. Needle inserted at paramedian vertebral canal pierces:
a. ant spinal lig
b. post spinal lig
c. supraspinal lig
d. interspinal log
e. ligamentum flavum
63. Pseudomembrane colitis linked to:
a. clindamycin
b. penicillin
c. cephalosporins
d. erythromycin
64. Regarding chemotherapy all are true, except:
a. often multi therapy is not curative
b. req daily dosing of multiple drugs for long time
65. Flumazenil
a. onset of action 30-60 min
b. all unconscious pts must be screened by this drug
c. paradoxical tachycardia
d. max safe dose 1 mg/day
66. Isoflurane
a. MAC 1.9
b. req special vaporizer
c. dec HR
66. Sevoflurane
a. dec HR
b. req use of normal vaporizer
67. MAC of Sevoflurane with 60% NO
a. 0.66-0.68
67. Ether causes
a. autonomic stimulation
68. Enflurane
a. EEG typical of seizures
b. not concerned to dose / conc adm
c. inc ICP
d. nonevident facial spasm
69. More pungent.
a. Isoflurane
b. enflurane
c. desflurane at MAC <1> cerebellum > sp. cord
b. sp. cord > cerebellum > cerebrum
c. cerebrum > sp. cord > cerebellum
73. N2O shd not be used in elderly with intestinal obs d/t:
a. risk of inc distension
74. Cylinder half filled with liquid N2O. Pressure in the cylinder?
75. Pressre of N2O cylinder is 750 psi. Pressure in the cylinder till the last drop evaporates?
76. T1/2 N2O ?
a. does not undergo metab and is exc unchanged
77. Myocardial toxicity to a L/A?
a. Bupivacaine
78. cardiovascular collapse
a. bupivacaine
79. MetHbemia
a. Prilocaine
80. Fracture 5, 6th rib. longest acting L/A to be given
a. Bupivacaine
81. MAC related to:
a. Bl / gas solubility
b. oil / gas solubility
c. alveolar air conc.
82. Hyperoxia. All true except 1.
a. retrolental fibroplasia
b. atelectasis
c. dec surfactant prod
d. CV depression
e. anemia
83. PG released in inflammation are inhibited by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. serotonin
84. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic pt
a. atracurium
b. tubocurare
c. cisatracurium
d. suxa
85. Muscle relaxant, renally exc, long duration of action
a. tubocurare
b. vancuronium
c. pancuroniun
d. gellamine
86. For disinfection hands shd be washed with
a. phenol
b. alcohol with chlorhexidine
c. formaldehyde
87. The operating room shd b cleaned with the following drug, following surgery of HIV pt:
a. 10% gluteraldehyde
b. 1% phosphoenol
c. 2% gluteraldehyde
d. H2O2
88. Following is true regarding sterilization:
a. repeated heating denatures polyvenyl tubings
b. autoclaving is heating objects at 121 degC at 15 psi for 3 min
c. radiation (UV light)
d. dry heat
e. formaldehyd
89. Reason for heat generation when CO2 is passed thru soda lime
a. formation of CaCO3
b. CaO formation
c. friction b/w soda and CO2
90. Flowmeter stops working when
a. flow of N2O > O2
b. flow of O2 > N2O
c. breakage / disruption of control valve.
91. Laminar flow (MURAD QS)
a. flow directly prop pressure
b. resistance independent
92. When Rynolds no. exceeds 3000
a. viscosity dec
b. density dec
c. velocity dec
93. Flow meter
a. used towards expiration
b. kept vertical to keep the dial needle at zero
c. not affected by humidity
d. cannot be attached to the ventilator
94. Regarding transducer all are true except
a. changes signal from 1 form of energy to another
b. capacitanc transducer can be used on body
95. Movement of molecules from high conc they layer/ surface:
a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. doppler effect
96. Critical temp is:
a. the temp at which gas must be cooled to become liquid
97. Latent heat of vaporization:
a. temp at which liquid converts to vapour / gas without the utilization of external heat
b. becomes zero with gain of energy
98. Relation of vol of a subs to its weight is:
a. density
b. viscosity
c. conc
99. To convert Celcius scale to Farenheit scale:
a. 9/5 *F- 32
b. 5/9 *F x 32
c. 5/9 *F + 32
d. Subract 32 and multiply by 5/9
e. add 32 and multiply by 9/5
100. Pt lying uncovered in operating room. Max heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
101. Pt with ETT tube. Heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
102. As the gas flows thru the vaporizer
a. gas is heated
b. outside of the container is cooled
c. surface vapour with highest energy is evaporated
103. Humidity is measured by:
a. hygrometer
b. thermometer
104. Apart frm measuring end tidal CO2 conc., capnograph can also measure
a. CO2 saturation
b. PO2
c. reduced Hb
d. oxyHb
105. Regarding Capnograph
a. rise of baseline indicate failure of valve
b. rise of height indicate valve failure
106. O2 is measured by all techniques except ......................(MURAD QS)
a. mass spectrometry
107. alpha waves with eyes closed
a. convert to beta when eyes open
b. convert to delta in REM
c. followed by slow frequency, high altitude wave
108. During diathermy when neutral plate is disturbed: ( Burn inc as current density inc, but independent of freq )
a. pt may get a burn even at ECG electrodes ( Burn can occur at all frequencies )
b. depends it is operating at cutting or coagulation mode
c. depends on current frequency
109. Strong magnetic instruments may not be used in a remote village d/t side effects. Instrument that can be used is:
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Angioplasty
110. Resistance in series:
a. inc as the wire is stretched
b. known as strain gauge used as pressure transducer
c. proportional to current flow
111. Wheatstone bridge
a. measures changes of resistsnce
b. no current flows when bridge is balanced
112. Pulse oxymetery
a. signals occur at 0.5 sec
b. light emitted by filtered light source
113. Variance is related to:
a. variability
b. square root of std deviation
c. range
114. Which measure of central tendency is used most frequently in clinical practise
a. mean
b. mode
c. median
d. 50th percentile
e. Wilcoxon rank sum test
115. t-test
a. shows relation of 2 paired means
116. Surgeon treats 200 pts of heamorrhoids. He randomly divides the pts into surgically treated and pharmacologically treated groups. After 1 yr he reasses the pts and finds that surgically treated pts have better outcome. This is called:
a. case - control study
b. cohort study
c. prospective cohort
d. randomized control trials
117. Treatment of strep pneumonia by sulphonamide and penicilline by random selection is called:
a. single blind
b. double blind
c. tripple blind
118. O2 carried most in fetal circ.
a. Umblical artery
b. Umblical vein
c. Superior vena cava
d. Aorta
119. Esophagus histology
a. covered by squamous ep
b. has str. sq in upper 1/3
c. has str. sq. in lower 1/3
d. has 3 layers of muscles
e. esophageal opening acting as anatomical sphincter
120. Length of larynx.
a. 15 cm average
b. cricoid to T2 cartilage
121. Esophageal opening
a. at left crus of diaphragm
b. Left phrenic nerve also passes thru this opening
c. at level of T12 vert
d. acts as anatomic sphincter to the stomach
122. Pt complains of chest pain for more than 30 min . ECG shows changes in V1- V4. It denotes:
a. anterior wall MI
b. anterolateral MI
c. Inferior wall MI
d. Lateral wall MI
e. Inferior wall MI
123. Groove for subclavian artery at
a. clavicle
b. 1st rib
c. 2nd rib
d. 6th rib
124. Structures entering thorasic inlet
a. accessory nerve
b. aorta
c. superior vena cava
d. azygous vein
e. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
125. Diaphragm is directly not attached to:
a. T10 vertebral body
b. L1 vertebral body
c. xiphisternum
d. 10th rib
126. Fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of serous pericardium is supplied by
รค. phrenic nerve
b. cardiac plexus
c. esophageal plexus
d. intercostal nerves
127. Needle inserted at 5th intercostal space on the left of the sternum pierces:
a. internal intercostal muscle
b. internal membrane
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
e. right ventricle
128. Which is untrue. 1st branch of ascending aorta is:
a. RCA from anterior aortic sinus
b. LCA from arch of aorta
c. left subclavian
129. 2nd heart sound is produced d/t :
a. closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
130. S2 splitting occurs d/t
a. delayed closure of pulmonic valve
131. Spinal cord ends at the level of lower border of:
a. L2 vertebra
b. L3 vertebra
c. L4 vertebra
d. L5 vertebra
e. S1 vertebra
132. Which is a branch of posterior division of sacral plexus
a. pudendal nerve
b. posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. common peroneal nerve
d. nerve to quadratus femoris
e. perforating cutaneous nerve
133. Aortic pressure tracing is highest at which phase of cardiac cycle:
a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. rapid ejection phase
c. slow ejection phase
d. isovolumetric contraction
134. Muscle of quiet inspiration
a. diaphragm
135. Damage to pneumotaxic centre leads to:
a. apneusis
b. deep inspiration
c. short expiratory phase
d. irregular breathing
e. apnea
136. Thich filaments:
a. actin
b. myocin
c. tropomyocin
d. actin and myocin
e. troponin
137. Example of carrier mediated counter transport:
a. Na- glucose transport
138. Depolarization of cell is maintained by:
a. Na influx
139. Inhaled foreign body lodges in which part of lung
a. Rt apical bronchus
140. At the end of expiration:
a. intra-alveolar pressure is subatmospheric
b. intra-pleural pressure is subatmospheric
141. Action potential thru large nerve fiber:
a. 300 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 3 ms
d. 0.3 ms
e. 0.03 ms
142. Blow to the lateral surface of knee joint damages:
a. medial meniscus, medial collateral lig and anterior cruciate lig.
143. Knee joint is supplied by:
a. L3-L4
144. Vagus forms the efferent pathway of:
a. Hering- Breur reflex
b. J- receptors of pulmonary capillaries
c. Bain Bridge reflex
145. Leftwatd shift of oxy-Hb curve is called:
a. Bohr effect
b. Haldane effect
c. Chloride shift
146. Ventilation perfusion mismatch in which Ventilation > Perfusion is called as:
a. shunt
b. dead space
147. Most important buffer is interstitial fluid
a. Hb
b. H2CO3
c. H2PO4
d. Proteins
148. Damage to what part of brain will result in central cease of respiration
a. medulla
149. Pacinian corpuscles related to
a. touch
b. vibration
c. pressure
d. rapidly adapting pain
e. slowly adapting pain
150. Medullary respiratory group of neurons part of ascending reticular system
a. True
b. false
151. Anion gap increases in:
a. Uncontrolled DM
152. Bile from liver is different from that from GB in:
a. has more HCO3-
b. has more mucous and pigments
c. has more anions
153. Dry mouth increases all except
a. thrist
b. ADH
c. Ag II
d. Plsma osmolarity
e. Plasma vol
154. H* sec from nephron is inc by
a. acidosis
b. alkalosis
155. Coronary blood flow is maintained by:
a. autoregulation
156. Increased filtration thru capillary is fascilitated by:
a. Inc plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b. inc hydrostatic pressure of cap
c. inc hydrostatic pressure of ISF
d. inc oncotic pressure of ISF
157. General anesthesia influences
a. motor is affected 1st
b. pain neurons blocked 1st
c. sensory neurons blocked 1st
d. autonomic neurons blocked 1st
158. Middle cerebral artery supplies
a. leg foot area of motor and sensory cortex.......... true / false
159. Stretch reflex afferent 1a fibers .................... true/false
160. Mediators of inflammation
a. C3a
b. C5a
c. IL1
d. TNF alpha
161. Largest total cross-sectional and surface area is of:
a. artery
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins
162. Blood flow regulation is mediated by:
a. arterioles
b. precepillary sphincter
c. capillaries
d. venules
163. If heart rate is 80 beats/min
a. duration of PR interval wld be b/w 0.12 - 0.16 sec
164. Lung function that cannot be measured by spirometry:
a. Residual vol
165. FRC = ?
a. ERV + RV
166. Hypoglycemia increases
a. SSK
b. Somatostatin
c. Gastrin
d. VIP
e. Secretin
167. Gastric acid is stimulated by:
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secterin
d. GIP
e. VIP
168. Somatostatin dec sec of which hormone
a. ADH
b. Insulin
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
e. Thyroid hormone
169. A postmenopausal women suffered fracture d/t osteoporosis. Her Ca** is Inc, PO4 is dec. Reason?
a. Estrogen
b. Cortison
c. PTH
d. CRF
e. Calcitonin
170. Physics... Capacitance
FCPS I - 26th MARCH' 08
ANESTHESIA
1. If a drug is taken orally. How will u assess the drug?
a. plasma drug conc
b. blood drug conc
c. urine drug conc
2. Regarding Nitroglycerine, all are true except
a. extensive 1st pass effect
b. venodilator
c. dec venous return
d. dec HR
e. t1/2 is 3-5 min
3. Warfarin, effect inc by
a. Cimetidine
4. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than in adults
a. dec metabolism
b. dec plasma protein binding
5. Enzyme induction occurs in:
a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. adrenals
6. Digoxin toxicity
a. Inc K*
b. Inc Mg*
c. dec Ca**
d. dec Na*
e. alkalosis
7. Secondary active transport occurs thru
a. glucose
b. Na*
c. K*
d. Urea
8. 2 liters of 2 different gases of diff mol wt contain
a. equal no. of molecules
b. equal no. of atoms
9. Capillary permeability is inc by
a. hypertension
b. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
c. intersitial hydrostatic press
d. altered permeability
10. PG in inflammation dec by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors
11. Which is true.
a. all parasymp are cholinergic
b. all sympathetic are adrenergic
c. all post-gang parasymp are cholinergic
12. Gastric motility is inc by:
a. inc gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
13. Gastric acid is inc by
a. Gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin
14. Basal level of bile
15. alpha recptors effects ?
a. inc HR
b. lipogenesis
c. midriasis
d. piloerector contraction
e. bronchodilator
16. Beta effect ?
a. Inc HR and force of contraction
17. ACh effect?
a. Inc salivation
b. inc sweating
c. constipation
18. Thirst is dec by:
a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. Ag II
d. baroreceptor efferent
e. inc Hematocrit
19. promotes each others actions
a. atropine and reserpine
b. amytriptyline and reserpine
c. atropine and amitryptyline
20. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mg/kg thiopentone, pt is hypotonic. Cause ?
a. hypersensitivity
b. dec HR
c. dec contractility
21.In hypertonic obs cardiomyopathy, which Ca** channel blocker is used:
a. Nifedipine
b. Nicardipine
22. Loop diuretics + thiazides enhance each others effect ( Dec NaCl abs) at:
a. descending loop of Henle
b. ascending loop of Henle
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. collecting duct
23. Pt with mild CCF. Treatment started. 1 week later pt complains of severe pain at Rt big toe. Cause:
a. thiazide
b. furosemide
c. ACEi
d. amiodarone
24. Metastatic pleural effusion. Drug to be given:
a. streptomycin
b. clindamycin
c. corticosteroids
d. bleomycin
25. Monotherapy for mild CCF:
a. digoxin
b. captopril
c. nifedipine
d. propranolol
26.Pacemaker for complete heart block. Terminals shd be in:
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Rt atrium
d. purkinje
e. Rt ventricle ..............(correct)
27. Infant with renal abnormality (renal artery stenosis). Drug responsible:
a. ACEi
b. Ca** channel blocker
c. amiodarone
28.Lungs inactivate Bradykinin by:
a. enz involved in converting kallikrein to plasma protein
29.After loss of 1 litre of blood in 5 min:
a. diastolic press dec
b. systolic press dec
c. aldosterone inc
d. no change
30. CO = VR. Large hump on left of cardiac pacing mentions:
a. inc contractility
b. inc HR
c. inc end-diastolic vol
31. Amiodarone.........> MOA
32. Lidocaine. MOA?
a. dec abnormal tissue conduction and no effect on normal tissue
b. inc PR interval
c. dec atrial contraction
d. dec AV conduction
e. inc QRS
f. inc QT
33. Class IA antiarrythmic drugs
a. Lidocaine
b. quinidine
c. procainide
d. amiodarone
34. Lidocaine as antiarrrythmic:
a. blocks Na* channels
b. Beta blocker
c. K* channel blocker
35.Verapamil ..... as antiarrythmic ?
36.Drug that inc extracellular K* (moves K* out of the cell):
a. Angiotensin
b. H2CO3
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. pH
e. exercise
37. Sec K* in renal cells
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. carbonic anhydrase
38. Consistent finding in hypoKalemia
a. prolong vomiting
b. diarrhea
c. ureters attached to colon
39. Metabolic alkalosis
a. renal failure
40. ARF- most effect.
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LOH
d. CD
41. Hb 8.0, HCO3- inc (35), pH Inc, Ca++ dec. Cause
a. ARF
b. Vit D def
c. folic acid deficiency
d. PTH
42. Anesthetics differ from anelgesics in:
a. only alter A delta and C fibers
b. Anesthetics effect at cerebral level and analgesics at spinal cord level
c. affects only pain and temp and no other sensory modalities
43. High output cardiac failure
a. Thiamine
b. B2
c. B6
d. Folic acid
44. 90 yrs old lady with purplish large patch on Rt hand and arm. No itching or pain. No comorbids, Otherwise Normal. Reason?
a. Capillary abn
b. Prothrombin
c. Vit K dependent clotting factors
45. 10 yrs old girl from Baluchistan c/o fatiguw, lethargy, mild jaundice, discoloration of skin, enlarged spleen. Hb 8.0, MCV 58, S. Ferritin 1000. Appropriate treatment?
a. deferroxamine
b. blood transfusion
c. iron transfusion
46. Death d/t embolism after accident
a. Fat
b. tumor cells
c. air
d. thromboembolism
47. Warfarin, effects on:
a. Factor VIII
b. factor III
c. Prothrombin
48. Ibpratopium bromide given by nebulization:
a. dec ACh release in bronchi
b. vasodil
c. inc secretion
49. Mast cell stabilizer.
a. Na chromoglycate
50. T1/2 of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:
a. 20-50 hrs
b. 50-100 hrs
c. 100-200 hrs
d. 36-200 hrs ................... (correct)
51. Post menopausal women with brease ca. DOC
a. Tamoxifen
52. Sec released from thyroid gland entering circulation is:
a. Thyroxine
b. Free T3
c. free T4
d. TSH
e. TRH
53. Cushing's triad:
a. Inc ICP, HTN, Bradycardia
b. Inc ICP, hypoTN, bradycardia
c. inc ICP, hypoTN, tachycardia
d. inc ICP, HTN. tachycardia
e. dec ICP, HTN, tachycardia
54. CSF
a. total 150 ml
b. production rate 20 ml/hr
c. produced by ependymal cells of choroid plexus
d. drained by lymphatics
55. CSF:
a. Inc K* than plasma
b. dec glucose
c. dec specific gravity
56. PTH
a. inc PO4 abs from renal tubules
b. inc Ca resorption from bones
c. CRF
d. Anemia
57. Imp buffer in interstitial fluid
a. H2CO3
b. Hb
c. plasma pr.
d. PO4
58. Cell wall synthesis inhib
a. Penicillin
59. Sulphonamides inhibit
a. tetrahydrofolate in bacteria
60. Dark urine after starting ATT.
a. Rifampin
61. 1 week after starting of ATT, pt c/o pain in big toe. Reason
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. PZA
62. Needle inserted at paramedian vertebral canal pierces:
a. ant spinal lig
b. post spinal lig
c. supraspinal lig
d. interspinal log
e. ligamentum flavum
63. Pseudomembrane colitis linked to:
a. clindamycin
b. penicillin
c. cephalosporins
d. erythromycin
64. Regarding chemotherapy all are true, except:
a. often multi therapy is not curative
b. req daily dosing of multiple drugs for long time
65. Flumazenil
a. onset of action 30-60 min
b. all unconscious pts must be screened by this drug
c. paradoxical tachycardia
d. max safe dose 1 mg/day
66. Isoflurane
a. MAC 1.9
b. req special vaporizer
c. dec HR
66. Sevoflurane
a. dec HR
b. req use of normal vaporizer
67. MAC of Sevoflurane with 60% NO
a. 0.66-0.68
67. Ether causes
a. autonomic stimulation
68. Enflurane
a. EEG typical of seizures
b. not concerned to dose / conc adm
c. inc ICP
d. nonevident facial spasm
69. More pungent.
a. Isoflurane
b. enflurane
c. desflurane at MAC <1> cerebellum > sp. cord
b. sp. cord > cerebellum > cerebrum
c. cerebrum > sp. cord > cerebellum
73. N2O shd not be used in elderly with intestinal obs d/t:
a. risk of inc distension
74. Cylinder half filled with liquid N2O. Pressure in the cylinder?
75. Pressre of N2O cylinder is 750 psi. Pressure in the cylinder till the last drop evaporates?
76. T1/2 N2O ?
a. does not undergo metab and is exc unchanged
77. Myocardial toxicity to a L/A?
a. Bupivacaine
78. cardiovascular collapse
a. bupivacaine
79. MetHbemia
a. Prilocaine
80. Fracture 5, 6th rib. longest acting L/A to be given
a. Bupivacaine
81. MAC related to:
a. Bl / gas solubility
b. oil / gas solubility
c. alveolar air conc.
82. Hyperoxia. All true except 1.
a. retrolental fibroplasia
b. atelectasis
c. dec surfactant prod
d. CV depression
e. anemia
83. PG released in inflammation are inhibited by:
a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. serotonin
84. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic pt
a. atracurium
b. tubocurare
c. cisatracurium
d. suxa
85. Muscle relaxant, renally exc, long duration of action
a. tubocurare
b. vancuronium
c. pancuroniun
d. gellamine
86. For disinfection hands shd be washed with
a. phenol
b. alcohol with chlorhexidine
c. formaldehyde
87. The operating room shd b cleaned with the following drug, following surgery of HIV pt:
a. 10% gluteraldehyde
b. 1% phosphoenol
c. 2% gluteraldehyde
d. H2O2
88. Following is true regarding sterilization:
a. repeated heating denatures polyvenyl tubings
b. autoclaving is heating objects at 121 degC at 15 psi for 3 min
c. radiation (UV light)
d. dry heat
e. formaldehyd
89. Reason for heat generation when CO2 is passed thru soda lime
a. formation of CaCO3
b. CaO formation
c. friction b/w soda and CO2
90. Flowmeter stops working when
a. flow of N2O > O2
b. flow of O2 > N2O
c. breakage / disruption of control valve.
91. Laminar flow (MURAD QS)
a. flow directly prop pressure
b. resistance independent
92. When Rynolds no. exceeds 3000
a. viscosity dec
b. density dec
c. velocity dec
93. Flow meter
a. used towards expiration
b. kept vertical to keep the dial needle at zero
c. not affected by humidity
d. cannot be attached to the ventilator
94. Regarding transducer all are true except
a. changes signal from 1 form of energy to another
b. capacitanc transducer can be used on body
95. Movement of molecules from high conc they layer/ surface:
a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. doppler effect
96. Critical temp is:
a. the temp at which gas must be cooled to become liquid
97. Latent heat of vaporization:
a. temp at which liquid converts to vapour / gas without the utilization of external heat
b. becomes zero with gain of energy
98. Relation of vol of a subs to its weight is:
a. density
b. viscosity
c. conc
99. To convert Celcius scale to Farenheit scale:
a. 9/5 *F- 32
b. 5/9 *F x 32
c. 5/9 *F + 32
d. Subract 32 and multiply by 5/9
e. add 32 and multiply by 9/5
100. Pt lying uncovered in operating room. Max heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
101. Pt with ETT tube. Heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation
102. As the gas flows thru the vaporizer
a. gas is heated
b. outside of the container is cooled
c. surface vapour with highest energy is evaporated
103. Humidity is measured by:
a. hygrometer
b. thermometer
104. Apart frm measuring end tidal CO2 conc., capnograph can also measure
a. CO2 saturation
b. PO2
c. reduced Hb
d. oxyHb
105. Regarding Capnograph
a. rise of baseline indicate failure of valve
b. rise of height indicate valve failure
106. O2 is measured by all techniques except ......................(MURAD QS)
a. mass spectrometry
107. alpha waves with eyes closed
a. convert to beta when eyes open
b. convert to delta in REM
c. followed by slow frequency, high altitude wave
108. During diathermy when neutral plate is disturbed: ( Burn inc as current density inc, but independent of freq )
a. pt may get a burn even at ECG electrodes ( Burn can occur at all frequencies )
b. depends it is operating at cutting or coagulation mode
c. depends on current frequency
109. Strong magnetic instruments may not be used in a remote village d/t side effects. Instrument that can be used is:
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Angioplasty
110. Resistance in series:
a. inc as the wire is stretched
b. known as strain gauge used as pressure transducer
c. proportional to current flow
111. Wheatstone bridge
a. measures changes of resistsnce
b. no current flows when bridge is balanced
112. Pulse oxymetery
a. signals occur at 0.5 sec
b. light emitted by filtered light source
113. Variance is related to:
a. variability
b. square root of std deviation
c. range
114. Which measure of central tendency is used most frequently in clinical practise
a. mean
b. mode
c. median
d. 50th percentile
e. Wilcoxon rank sum test
115. t-test
a. shows relation of 2 paired means
116. Surgeon treats 200 pts of heamorrhoids. He randomly divides the pts into surgically treated and pharmacologically treated groups. After 1 yr he reasses the pts and finds that surgically treated pts have better outcome. This is called:
a. case - control study
b. cohort study
c. prospective cohort
d. randomized control trials
117. Treatment of strep pneumonia by sulphonamide and penicilline by random selection is called:
a. single blind
b. double blind
c. tripple blind
118. O2 carried most in fetal circ.
a. Umblical artery
b. Umblical vein
c. Superior vena cava
d. Aorta
119. Esophagus histology
a. covered by squamous ep
b. has str. sq in upper 1/3
c. has str. sq. in lower 1/3
d. has 3 layers of muscles
e. esophageal opening acting as anatomical sphincter
120. Length of larynx.
a. 15 cm average
b. cricoid to T2 cartilage
121. Esophageal opening
a. at left crus of diaphragm
b. Left phrenic nerve also passes thru this opening
c. at level of T12 vert
d. acts as anatomic sphincter to the stomach
122. Pt complains of chest pain for more than 30 min . ECG shows changes in V1- V4. It denotes:
a. anterior wall MI
b. anterolateral MI
c. Inferior wall MI
d. Lateral wall MI
e. Inferior wall MI
123. Groove for subclavian artery at
a. clavicle
b. 1st rib
c. 2nd rib
d. 6th rib
124. Structures entering thorasic inlet
a. accessory nerve
b. aorta
c. superior vena cava
d. azygous vein
e. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
125. Diaphragm is directly not attached to:
a. T10 vertebral body
b. L1 vertebral body
c. xiphisternum
d. 10th rib
126. Fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of serous pericardium is supplied by
รค. phrenic nerve
b. cardiac plexus
c. esophageal plexus
d. intercostal nerves
127. Needle inserted at 5th intercostal space on the left of the sternum pierces:
a. internal intercostal muscle
b. internal membrane
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
e. right ventricle
128. Which is untrue. 1st branch of ascending aorta is:
a. RCA from anterior aortic sinus
b. LCA from arch of aorta
c. left subclavian
129. 2nd heart sound is produced d/t :
a. closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
130. S2 splitting occurs d/t
a. delayed closure of pulmonic valve
131. Spinal cord ends at the level of lower border of:
a. L2 vertebra
b. L3 vertebra
c. L4 vertebra
d. L5 vertebra
e. S1 vertebra
132. Which is a branch of posterior division of sacral plexus
a. pudendal nerve
b. posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. common peroneal nerve
d. nerve to quadratus femoris
e. perforating cutaneous nerve
133. Aortic pressure tracing is highest at which phase of cardiac cycle:
a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. rapid ejection phase
c. slow ejection phase
d. isovolumetric contraction
134. Muscle of quiet inspiration
a. diaphragm
135. Damage to pneumotaxic centre leads to:
a. apneusis
b. deep inspiration
c. short expiratory phase
d. irregular breathing
e. apnea
136. Thich filaments:
a. actin
b. myocin
c. tropomyocin
d. actin and myocin
e. troponin
137. Example of carrier mediated counter transport:
a. Na- glucose transport
138. Depolarization of cell is maintained by:
a. Na influx
139. Inhaled foreign body lodges in which part of lung
a. Rt apical bronchus
140. At the end of expiration:
a. intra-alveolar pressure is subatmospheric
b. intra-pleural pressure is subatmospheric
141. Action potential thru large nerve fiber:
a. 300 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 3 ms
d. 0.3 ms
e. 0.03 ms
142. Blow to the lateral surface of knee joint damages:
a. medial meniscus, medial collateral lig and anterior cruciate lig.
143. Knee joint is supplied by:
a. L3-L4
144. Vagus forms the efferent pathway of:
a. Hering- Breur reflex
b. J- receptors of pulmonary capillaries
c. Bain Bridge reflex
145. Leftwatd shift of oxy-Hb curve is called:
a. Bohr effect
b. Haldane effect
c. Chloride shift
146. Ventilation perfusion mismatch in which Ventilation > Perfusion is called as:
a. shunt
b. dead space
147. Most important buffer is interstitial fluid
a. Hb
b. H2CO3
c. H2PO4
d. Proteins
148. Damage to what part of brain will result in central cease of respiration
a. medulla
149. Pacinian corpuscles related to
a. touch
b. vibration
c. pressure
d. rapidly adapting pain
e. slowly adapting pain
150. Medullary respiratory group of neurons part of ascending reticular system
a. True
b. false
151. Anion gap increases in:
a. Uncontrolled DM
152. Bile from liver is different from that from GB in:
a. has more HCO3-
b. has more mucous and pigments
c. has more anions
153. Dry mouth increases all except
a. thrist
b. ADH
c. Ag II
d. Plsma osmolarity
e. Plasma vol
154. H* sec from nephron is inc by
a. acidosis
b. alkalosis
155. Coronary blood flow is maintained by:
a. autoregulation
156. Increased filtration thru capillary is fascilitated by:
a. Inc plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b. inc hydrostatic pressure of cap
c. inc hydrostatic pressure of ISF
d. inc oncotic pressure of ISF
157. General anesthesia influences
a. motor is affected 1st
b. pain neurons blocked 1st
c. sensory neurons blocked 1st
d. autonomic neurons blocked 1st
158. Middle cerebral artery supplies
a. leg foot area of motor and sensory cortex.......... true / false
159. Stretch reflex afferent 1a fibers .................... true/false
160. Mediators of inflammation
a. C3a
b. C5a
c. IL1
d. TNF alpha
161. Largest total cross-sectional and surface area is of:
a. artery
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins
162. Blood flow regulation is mediated by:
a. arterioles
b. precepillary sphincter
c. capillaries
d. venules
163. If heart rate is 80 beats/min
a. duration of PR interval wld be b/w 0.12 - 0.16 sec
164. Lung function that cannot be measured by spirometry:
a. Residual vol
165. FRC = ?
a. ERV + RV
166. Hypoglycemia increases
a. SSK
b. Somatostatin
c. Gastrin
d. VIP
e. Secretin
167. Gastric acid is stimulated by:
a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secterin
d. GIP
e. VIP
168. Somatostatin dec sec of which hormone
a. ADH
b. Insulin
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
e. Thyroid hormone
169. A postmenopausal women suffered fracture d/t osteoporosis. Her Ca** is Inc, PO4 is dec. Reason?
a. Estrogen
b. Cortison
c. PTH
d. CRF
e. Calcitonin
170. Physics... Capacitance
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